Morality oral sex

The use of contraception is intrinsically evil and always gravely immoral, even when used for a medical purpose, or in dire circumstances. Think about this for a moment: Let me be frank, "sex," as we are using the word, are those actions that generally lead to orgasm, and for males the release of semen. Sexual acts are always a serious matter, so that the sin of an immoral sexual act is always objectively grave. The 'non-contracepting' spouse is deliberately choosing to participate in contracepted sexual relations, and so he or she is participating in the deprivation of the procreative meaning from the marital act. This particular doctrine, often expounded by the magisterium of the Church, is based on the inseparable connection, established by God, which man on his own initiative may not break, between the unitive significance and the procreative significance which are both inherent to the marriage act.
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The Marriage Act and Oral-Genital Stimulation

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Oral Sex in Marriage

Second, even without penetration and ejaculation in the vagina, pregnancy can result if semen is deposited at the entrance to the vagina. For, among all sexual performances, only a reproductive-type act is a single function of a mated pair. Given the medical knowledge that no such harm results to the offspring from marital relations during menstruation, his opinion on this point is in error. These are sometimes referred to euphemistically as oral stimulation, anal stimulation, and manual stimulation. This is the threefold object of every moral sexual act. Two acts, one of which is closed to life and the other of which is open to life cannot be considered as if they were one act.
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NOTRE DAME SEMINARY

That is so when it is intended by both spouses to be an incomplete sexual act leading to marital intercourse, is willingly done by the wife for that purpose, and serves the purpose effectively. A Consumers Union Report Boston: But the lack of sexual climax does not change the moral object from evil to good. Gently mention such possibilities and encourage the men you deal with to examine their consciences. In that case, it is sodomy, and, as already explained, is morally excluded. Finally, there is the matter of lust.
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I shall treat the other questions before returning to the second question in 4. Unnatural sexual acts are inherently unfruitful. When the contraceptive pill the birth control pill is taken by a woman who is not sexually active, the pill does not deprive sexual acts of the procreative meaning, because there are no sexual acts. Nicholas Halligan, author of the series, The Ministry of the Celebration of the Sacraments , comments: Certain kinds of acts are inherently immoral by the very nature of the act. But even when this act does not or cannot achieve this good end its moral object , the act remains inherently ordered toward that same end, and so it retains that good, the procreative meaning, in its moral object. Therefore, it is in no way justifiable for a sexually active woman to use abortifacient contraception for a medical purpose.
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